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Post by witchfinder on Apr 4, 2024 10:47:47 GMT
Top 10 richest areas in Northern Europe (Scandanavia, UK, Ireland, Denmark, Germany, France, Luxembourg, Netherlands & Belgium).
1 Inner London
2 Luxembourg
3 Brussels
4 Hamburg
5 Lie de France
6 Groningen
7 Stockholm
8 Oberbayern
9 Vienna
10 Darmstadt
Top 10 poorest areas in Northern Europe ( Same nations )
1 West Wales
2 Cornwall
3 Durham & Tees Valley
4 Lincolnshire
5 South Yorkshire
6 Shropshire & Staffordshire
7 Lancashire
8 Northern Ireland
9 Harnaut
10 Humberside
In 1990 all 5 regions of East Germany ( The GDR ) were poorer than the 10 poorest regions of the UK, today the poorest of those regions (Mecklenburg Vor Pomerern, on the Baltic coast) is wealthier than any of the poorest regions of the UK.
The Conservatives call this "Leveling Up"
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Post by Pacifico on Apr 4, 2024 16:33:44 GMT
how are they measuring this?
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Post by Totheleft on Apr 5, 2024 15:51:58 GMT
how are they measuring this? It's according to Gross Domestic Product per person when analyzing against nearby nations. Can you argue with that |
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Post by witchfinder on Apr 5, 2024 16:50:08 GMT
Eurostat, similar to our Office For National Statistics, but much larger
The organisation traces its history back to 1953
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Post by Pacifico on Apr 5, 2024 17:03:15 GMT
how are they measuring this? It's according to Gross Domestic Product per person when analyzing against nearby nations. Can you argue with that are they accounting for PPP? |
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Post by Pacifico on Apr 5, 2024 17:11:13 GMT
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Post by buccaneer on Apr 5, 2024 21:57:12 GMT
Witchfinder, can you argue with that? |
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Post by Totheleft on Apr 6, 2024 5:04:56 GMT
It's not really been debunked but it's hard to measure using that method. This was the conculsion by full fact using a more reliable Measure. But other measures do suggest the UK is more unequal. For example, the gini coefficient measures disposable income inequality on a scale from 0 to 100. A score of 100 would mean that everyone’s incomes were totally unequal, with all the money going to one household. Zero would mean everyone lived on effectively the same income. According to that metric, in 2016 the UK was more unequal than those other 10 countries in northern Europe. |
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Post by Deleted on Apr 6, 2024 5:30:29 GMT
Witchfinder, can you argue with that? I would imagine he would rather not. He's peddling outdated disinformation. The fact that he didn't provide a source leaves me to suspect that it was intentional. |
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Post by Pacifico on Apr 6, 2024 7:02:14 GMT
It's not really been debunked but it's hard to measure using that method. This was the conculsion by full fact using a more reliable Measure. But other measures do suggest the UK is more unequal. For example, the gini coefficient measures disposable income inequality on a scale from 0 to 100. A score of 100 would mean that everyone’s incomes were totally unequal, with all the money going to one household. Zero would mean everyone lived on effectively the same income. According to that metric, in 2016 the UK was more unequal than those other 10 countries in northern Europe. gini measures inequality - not poverty. In a country of Billionaires a Millionaire lives in poverty.. |
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Post by The Squeezed Middle on Apr 6, 2024 7:19:11 GMT
So neither of Witchy's assertions are supported by the evidence.
Quelle surprise. 🙄
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Post by Dan Dare on Apr 6, 2024 7:28:13 GMT
It's all rather moot anyway since Eurostat doesn't include the UK since Brexit. As you'd expect.
The data in the OP is from 2017.
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Post by andrewbrown on Apr 6, 2024 7:29:54 GMT
Witchfinder, can you argue with that? I would imagine he would rather not. He's peddling outdated disinformation. The fact that he didn't provide a source leaves me to suspect that it was intentional. Apart from in the title. 😉 |
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Post by Totheleft on Apr 6, 2024 7:52:43 GMT
It's not really been debunked but it's hard to measure using that method. This was the conculsion by full fact using a more reliable Measure. But other measures do suggest the UK is more unequal. For example, the gini coefficient measures disposable income inequality on a scale from 0 to 100. A score of 100 would mean that everyone’s incomes were totally unequal, with all the money going to one household. Zero would mean everyone lived on effectively the same income. According to that metric, in 2016 the UK was more unequal than those other 10 countries in northern Europe. gini measures inequality - not poverty. In a country of Billionaires a Millionaire lives in poverty.. What about India ? |
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Post by witchfinder on Apr 6, 2024 8:31:16 GMT
The GDP per capita can be described as a "rough guide", however "PP" or purchasing power is the fly in the ointment, because 10p in the UK might buy you something in a sweet shop, but 10p in some countries will buy you a loaf of bread or a pack of rice.
Eurostat figures as published in Post 1 are correct, they are not false in any way, the argument is whether they truly reflect the wealth of the regions listed.
One thing IS certain, and its damning on this country, the entire GDR ( East Germany ) of 1990 was poorer and more deprived than anywhere in the UK, today there is no region of the former GDR which is less poorer than any of our poorest regions.
There is a joke going around in Germany which goes like this "what was it really like living in the old East Germany" ? ANSWER: "go on holiday to England and find out".
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