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Post by sandypine on Feb 19, 2024 16:34:34 GMT
Why you are bringing racial purity into it when you are determined to blame the now English for 700 years of colonisation in which they played little part in the process at first and were in fact suffering exactly the same process but 109 years further down the line. The English aren't a race sandy. They are a nation , made up of a collection of different people . I haven't blamed the English. This is nothing but a pure misrepresentation of my argument which I have defined so many times above its beyond belief. You on the other hand have reduced your argument down to racial purity of anglo saxons , and descendants of foreigners who held the crown not being classed as legitimate English rulers , in your eyes of course. Can you explain to me why Henry 2 of England isnt the legitimate English king in 1175? Is famous figures from the same `Norman French period` such as Edward 1 a legitimate English king? is Robert de brus a legitimate Scottish king in your eyes? You arguments , and attempts to baffle with bullshit as the thread goes on get more desperate . Which is precisely why I asked about your reference to racial purity. The upshot of what you have said as regards Ireland being England's first colony is that the English will get the blame, that may or may not be your intent but that is the consequence of that statement. They are legitimate Kings as far as any King is legitimate my point, as always, is that they also fit the definition of a colonial power from outside England and certainly until Normandy was lost England was a colony of that Dukedom.
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Post by sandypine on Feb 19, 2024 16:43:00 GMT
Why you bring in Sunak to this I know not he is self proclaimed of Indian heritage and he is referred to as a British Asian with no embarrassment by anyone and he has risen to be PM through our democratic process with all its flaws and outside interference. Why would you apply our moral stances today with the moral stances accepted as the norm back in the 12th century and how far back do you go with the application of modern morality. It seems like a useless cause. I brought Sunak into the argument because you are arguing someone who isnt of anglo saxon descent can't be a legitimate ruler of England . Thats essentially what you are saying of Henry 2. What qualifies someone as a legitimate ruler im asking ? Birth ? Ancestry? explain please? The Sunak example shows how ridiculous your argument is. Sunak's family haven't been in England for four hundred years , so by your rule , can't be a legitimate ruler ? No? I am not arguing such I am placing the rule in the context of the times and Harold may or may not have been the rightful king but he was king and was deposed by force and that force also purloined lands and titles and placed them in the hands of the invading force, making England a colony of Normandy. If invasion legitimises overlordship then Henry II was the legitimate Lord of Ireland and Henry VIII was the legitimate King of Ireland. Sunak was part of the democratic process he did not grab power by force of arms. Why would you relate that to what happened in the late 12th century which I do not think anyone argues was part of a democratic process.
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Post by thomas on Feb 19, 2024 16:47:35 GMT
The English aren't a race sandy. They are a nation , made up of a collection of different people . I haven't blamed the English. This is nothing but a pure misrepresentation of my argument which I have defined so many times above its beyond belief. You on the other hand have reduced your argument down to racial purity of anglo saxons , and descendants of foreigners who held the crown not being classed as legitimate English rulers , in your eyes of course. Can you explain to me why Henry 2 of England isnt the legitimate English king in 1175? Is famous figures from the same `Norman French period` such as Edward 1 a legitimate English king? is Robert de brus a legitimate Scottish king in your eyes? You arguments , and attempts to baffle with bullshit as the thread goes on get more desperate . Which is precisely why I asked about your reference to racial purity. you are implying a someone of Norman French descent can't be monarch of England , and thus England as a nation not being responsible for that monarchs actions. If the English aren't a race , but a collection of different people , then Henry 2 is king no? I stand by my original and subsequent claims. Is this you crumbling? right , so does this mean Henry 2 was the legitimate king of England in 1175 yes or no? colonial power from outside? Was Henry in your opinion an English king or not? if not why? England hasn't lost normandy sandy. England as the colonial power still retains part of normandy today , and the king is still ( no laughing please) classed as duke.
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Post by thomas on Feb 19, 2024 16:57:35 GMT
I brought Sunak into the argument because you are arguing someone who isnt of anglo saxon descent can't be a legitimate ruler of England . Thats essentially what you are saying of Henry 2. What qualifies someone as a legitimate ruler im asking ? Birth ? Ancestry? explain please? The Sunak example shows how ridiculous your argument is. Sunak's family haven't been in England for four hundred years , so by your rule , can't be a legitimate ruler ? No? I am not arguing such I am placing the rule in the context of the times you are arguing such. How is Sunak different today as ruler of England/britian to Henry 2 in 1175? Define the context? what disqualifies Henry , and qualifies Sunak? see what I mean ? pure utter waffle. We have discussed 1066 and agree. We are now 109 years on , five generations later. Harold doesn't come into it. You ve spent the whole thread telling me you disagree with me without actually offering any substantive argument as to why. it was in 1066. The question I asked how long does it take the colonists descendants to become in your eyes English? We have moved on from 1066 , and are now in 1175. Are immigrants descendants not regarded as English 5 generations and a century later? you are misrepresenting me again. Henry 2 didnt invade England. He was king of England. neither did Henry 2. His grandfather had held the throne of England , and thus he had a claim by the standards of the time. you are implying he wasn't an anglo saxon , so was not the legitimate king , and im asking how long does it take the descendants of immigrants to become English ?
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Post by sandypine on Feb 19, 2024 17:09:28 GMT
Which is precisely why I asked about your reference to racial purity. you are implying a someone of Norman French descent can't be monarch of England , and thus England as a nation not being responsible for that monarchs actions. If the English aren't a race , but a collection of different people , then Henry 2 is king no? I stand by my original and subsequent claims. Is this you crumbling? right , so does this mean Henry 2 was the legitimate king of England in 1175 yes or no? colonial power from outside? Was Henry in your opinion an English king or not? if not why? England hasn't lost normandy sandy. England as the colonial power still retains part of normandy today , and the king is still ( no laughing please) classed as duke. Your inference is just plain wrong in the first instance. Why are you always seeking some form of comeuppance. I thought it was a discussion. Define for me what a legitimate king is and I will tell you? You are very keen on definitions. Legitimacy rests upon many things and there will always be arguments. If invasion brings legitimacy then Henry 2 is King of England but also Duke of Normandy and Count of Anjou and Duke of Maine. Which one gets the blame for his actions, perhaps the oldest held in the line would that be fair? That makes it Normandy and it is clear the Normans held power in England for many many years. England is not the colonial power in the Channel Islands, they are holdings of the Crown as was the whole of Normandy and Duke of Normandy is the first title held in that regnal line.
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Post by sandypine on Feb 19, 2024 17:24:45 GMT
I am not arguing such I am placing the rule in the context of the times you are arguing such. How is Sunak different today as ruler of England/britian to Henry 2 in 1175? Define the context? what disqualifies Henry , and qualifies Sunak? see what I mean ? pure utter waffle. We have discussed 1066 and agree. We are now 109 years on , five generations later. Harold doesn't come into it. You ve spent the whole thread telling me you disagree with me without actually offering any substantive argument as to why. it was in 1066. The question I asked how long does it take the colonists descendants to become in your eyes English? We have moved on from 1066 , and are now in 1175. Are immigrants descendants not regarded as English 5 generations and a century later? you are misrepresenting me again. Henry 2 didnt invade England. He was king of England. neither did Henry 2. His grandfather had held the throne of England , and thus he had a claim by the standards of the time. you are implying he wasn't an anglo saxon , so was not the legitimate king , and im asking how long does it take the descendants of immigrants to become English ? Sunak is not a king. Henry was the ruler of teh colonial power in England, I am not sure how often I have to say that, the fact it is five generations on makes no difference, you were dealing with Ireland over 700 years as in your parlance a colony. The British were in India for over three hundred years and to the Indians they were always the British in India. They did not become Indian through multiple generations born there if the natives so decided. Time is immaterial in the concept of colonial power. I have already answered the how long does it take question in that I agreed that by Tudor times the process of assimilation was broadly complete. The point about invasion was that the Plantagenet line was introduced through invasion otherwise it would be Godwinson. Now we come to the 'standards of the time' which now is important to you as a way to legitimise power. By teh 'standards of the time' Ireland was part of the Angevin Empire and was held by the ruler of that Empire as part of all those holdings of the Duke of Normandy, King of England, Count of Anjou, Duke of Maine and Lord of Ireland. I am saying that in Henry II's time the colonial power was still the colonial power.
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Post by thomas on Feb 19, 2024 17:24:54 GMT
I have defined my argument regarding ireland as Englands first colony so many times now it's beyond repeating. The problem is you keep misrepresenting my argument. Do I misrepresent your argument? every time. You are squealing about `the English` as though anyone but you is blaming ranulph the 12th century saxon . you are telling lies and making things up yet again , called misrepresentation. Two things. In 1175 , the anglo saxons were not the only inhabitants of England. Secondly , the English monarchy has oppressed its own people over the centuries . This is again a diversion and irrelevant to my point. I dispute it. it doesn't. Please re read my arguments through the thread , and stop misrepresenting me. . wrong way round. Remember ? We discussed why up the thread. it wasn't. Re read the treaty of Windsor , where it clearly says the power is that of the English crown , and mentions the English crown and England 12 times. nope. The English crown was feudally superior to the dukedom or normandy , hence why Henry 2 annexed ireland to England , rather than Anjou or normandy. He was the English king. Can I ask you to define when does a colonist stop being a colonist and start being regarded as an English king? They didnt. It was a shotgun wedding , and then the Irish sub=sequently fought back. , till all that remained of English crown lands was the Dublin pale. Hence the need for the Tudor re conquests. Ireland never was once in history , and England wasn't in 1175. ask patman post. Charlies Is still Duke of normandy today , and the Channel Islands still remain part of the English crown. is that a fancy way of saying you agree with me? More sandy semantics. The king of England was king over ireland. Hence ireland was an English colony. you earlier said England was a `holding` of normandy and now you argue normandy was a holding of England ? Baffle with bullshit . All through the thread. you really are an old bullshitter aren't you sandy? You know I suspect you have done this all your life. Did you once sell used cars or something? You have already accepted the premise ireland was Englands second colony when you agreed the English were responsible for their crowns actions from 1485 onwards. ( after Wales) We are simply tidying up the nonsense you are spouting through this thread , and dragging you kicking and screaming to accept reality that it was actually the first. .
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Post by thomas on Feb 19, 2024 17:29:06 GMT
you are implying a someone of Norman French descent can't be monarch of England , and thus England as a nation not being responsible for that monarchs actions. If the English aren't a race , but a collection of different people , then Henry 2 is king no? I stand by my original and subsequent claims. Is this you crumbling? right , so does this mean Henry 2 was the legitimate king of England in 1175 yes or no? colonial power from outside? Was Henry in your opinion an English king or not? if not why? England hasn't lost normandy sandy. England as the colonial power still retains part of normandy today , and the king is still ( no laughing please) classed as duke. Your inference is just plain wrong in the first instance. Why are you always seeking some form of comeuppance. I thought it was a discussion. Define for me what a legitimate king is and I will tell you? You are very keen on definitions. Legitimacy rests upon many things and there will always be arguments. If invasion brings legitimacy then Henry 2 is King of England but also Duke of Normandy and Count of Anjou and Duke of Maine. Which one gets the blame for his actions, perhaps the oldest held in the line would that be fair? That makes it Normandy and it is clear the Normans held power in England for many many years. England is not the colonial power in the Channel Islands, they are holdings of the Crown as was the whole of Normandy and Duke of Normandy is the first title held in that regnal line. I dont need to define anything. It's you who is questioning Henry 2 legitimacy. History reads him as an English king , you apparently dont. Over to you? the crown of England , which is the superior title. you said earlier England was a colonial possession of Normandy , and now you are saying normandy was a crown land of England ? did you only just discover William the conqueror made Normandy a crown possession of the English crown? not the other way about? ......and the reason is........because........the English crown was a superior title under feudalism........as I explained above...........jeeez!
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Post by thomas on Feb 19, 2024 17:44:28 GMT
you are arguing such. How is Sunak different today as ruler of England/britian to Henry 2 in 1175? Define the context? what disqualifies Henry , and qualifies Sunak? see what I mean ? pure utter waffle. We have discussed 1066 and agree. We are now 109 years on , five generations later. Harold doesn't come into it. You ve spent the whole thread telling me you disagree with me without actually offering any substantive argument as to why. it was in 1066. The question I asked how long does it take the colonists descendants to become in your eyes English? We have moved on from 1066 , and are now in 1175. Are immigrants descendants not regarded as English 5 generations and a century later? you are misrepresenting me again. Henry 2 didnt invade England. He was king of England. neither did Henry 2. His grandfather had held the throne of England , and thus he had a claim by the standards of the time. you are implying he wasn't an anglo saxon , so was not the legitimate king , and im asking how long does it take the descendants of immigrants to become English ? Sunak is not a king. see what I mean. More diversionary waffle. I asked is Sunak the legitimate ruler of England / Britain due to his status as a descendant of immigrants , and you waffle Sunak is not a king. so Sunak is not English then are you saying if his family haven't been in England long enough? I was , but I never once said , claimed or inferred English colonists descendants didnt become Irish after a number of generations unlike you......... so you are saying it takes four hundred years for descendants of immigrants to become assimilated? huge if true!!! No it wasn't. the angevin empire was a a term coined in the 19th century sandy. Ireland was colonised by the king of england. We have that very treaty of colonisation written in black and white. Its called the treaty of windsor , and no where does it mention the angevin empire.
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Post by sandypine on Feb 19, 2024 18:01:38 GMT
Do I misrepresent your argument? every time. You are squealing about `the English` as though anyone but you is blaming ranulph the 12th century saxon . you are telling lies and making things up yet again , called misrepresentation. Two things. In 1175 , the anglo saxons were not the only inhabitants of England. Secondly , the English monarchy has oppressed its own people over the centuries . This is again a diversion and irrelevant to my point. I dispute it. it doesn't. Please re read my arguments through the thread , and stop misrepresenting me. . wrong way round. Remember ? We discussed why up the thread. it wasn't. Re read the treaty of Windsor , where it clearly says the power is that of the English crown , and mentions the English crown and England 12 times. nope. The English crown was feudally superior to the dukedom or normandy , hence why Henry 2 annexed ireland to England , rather than Anjou or normandy. He was the English king. Can I ask you to define when does a colonist stop being a colonist and start being regarded as an English king? They didnt. It was a shotgun wedding , and then the Irish sub=sequently fought back. , till all that remained of English crown lands was the Dublin pale. Hence the need for the Tudor re conquests. Ireland never was once in history , and England wasn't in 1175. ask patman post. Charlies Is still Duke of normandy today , and the Channel Islands still remain part of the English crown. is that a fancy way of saying you agree with me? More sandy semantics. The king of England was king over ireland. Hence ireland was an English colony. you earlier said England was a `holding` of normandy and now you argue normandy was a holding of England ? Baffle with bullshit . All through the thread. you really are an old bullshitter aren't you sandy? You know I suspect you have done this all your life. Did you once sell used cars or something? You have already accepted the premise ireland was Englands second colony when you agreed the English were responsible for their crowns actions from 1485 onwards. ( after Wales) We are simply tidying up the nonsense you are spouting through this thread , and dragging you kicking and screaming to accept reality that it was actually the first. . I make the inference that calling Ireland England's first colony is indeed placing blame upon the now English to a greater degree than is warranted. Define what England was in 1170 then. I am saying it was a colony of the Duke of Normandy and as such the colonial power was Norman and the actions of the Crown were in advancement of the Normans and their holdings. Do you say otherwise? The anglo Saxons were the main inhabitants of most of England, their king had united England under one ruler. That ruling line was ousted by invasion and colonisation. Of course the treaty refers to the King of England but as I keep saying that King of England was part of the colonial power holdings of the Normans from Normandy from whence that power had come. So at what point did England cease to be a colony of Normandy? The Duke of Normandy was the first power base from which invasion was carried out the colonising of England and the seizure of the English Crown occurred. I thought you had agreed that makes England a colony by the definitions you presented. It makes England, Normandy's colony. Now you are saying that the Crown is feudally superior to a Dukedom, I would not disagree but if a Crown is seized by force by a Dukedom and places its colonists in positions of power within that Crown that does not mean the Crown is not a colony of the Dukedom and that is as ever my point. If Ireland was a colony of England through invasion then exactly the same forces were at work making England a colony of Normandy and a colony is not operating in its own name it is operating in the colonial power name even if that power calls itself something else. This is what you say about Ireland because the King of England took on the title King of Ireland that makes Ireland a colony of England but when the Duke of Normandy invades and takes the title King of England it becomes nothing whatsoever to do with Normandy anymore. This is a hypocritical outlook. With the advent of the Tudors I said the process of assimilation was broadly complete and it would be possibly churlish to say England was not England at this time although there is always a colonial residue in any country. I see you have reverted to derogatory words again.
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Post by thomas on Feb 19, 2024 20:10:35 GMT
every time. You are squealing about `the English` as though anyone but you is blaming ranulph the 12th century saxon . I make the inference that calling Ireland England's first colony is indeed placing blame upon the now English to a greater degree than is warranted. We dont care what you make as an inference. Im simply telling you what was written in the treaty of Windsor , and why from that point ireland was regarded as an English colony. in 1175 , England was a sovereign kingdom. sigh* You can say what you like , but it doesn't make it true. England was never annexed to Normandy the way ireland was annexed to England in 1175 .We have went over the reason time and again. There was no colonial power in 1175. The English crown ruled England. Not the Norman or Anjou crown. Can you prove otherwise? Doesn't matter. There were different ethnic groups within the historic English boundaries who weren't anglo saxon , such as the Danes and some Celts , who are regarded as much natives of England as anglo saxons, so im not sure why the normans took four centuries to be seen as native English in your warped view. what does this even mean? are you arguing the king of England was subservient to the normans ? if not , then what has this to do with the treaty of Windsor? We have been over the fact one man can hold many different titles , but in the treaty , it clearly says ireland is being annexed and claimed by the king of England . not anywhere else. England was never annexed to normandy the way ireland was to England , as we have explained numerous times. so in that regard the question is meaningless and yet more diversionary waffle. In terms of the normans being colonists , I would argue two or three generations later , their descendants , like the English descendants in ireland , would have come to see themselves as part of the English nation. Certainly not your ridiculous 400 year nonsense. It was who has argued otherwise? This is exactly what I mean about filling threads with diversionary , and unnecessary words to make it seem as though you are making a coherent argument , but not actually furthering the debate with any substance. Nope. Ive never once said the Norman crown annexed England. Ive explained why. There were Norman colonists , but their descendants after a couple of generations would have come to see themselves as part of the English nation. England was never annexed to normandy the way ireland was to England . that is the comparison. so what are you gibbering about? round and round we go. I know what your point is , and im saying I disagree with you. England wasn't annexed to the Norman dukedom the way ireland was to the English crown. Hence why from 1175 onwards , ireland was regarded as Englands first colony. more dishonest misrepresentation. Ireland wasn't just a colony through invasion. you made that up. I said ireland was England first colony because it was invaded , then annexed , to the English crown. Stop misrepresenting my argument , and cherry picking bits and chopping other parts off. It's why you are regarded as such a dishonest bullshitter of the highest order. we have went over this point numerous times , previously through the thread.. There is no hypocrisy , as there is no comparison to my argument and yours. Did you show me where the Duke of normandy annexed England to the Norman dukedom ? No . did I show you where the king of England annexed ireland to the English crown ? Yes .The treaty of Windsor. did I agree Norman settlers colonised England in 1066 ? Yes? Did you agree their descendants with in a number of generations became part of the English nation ? No ? You ridiculously argued they weren't for four hundred years. ...and I disagreed. I even asked you ( which you ignored) if Edward the first was a legitimate king of England in your eyes , or Robert de brus king of scotland ,or were they foreign colonial kings and you ignored and ran away. Typical of the dishonest debater that you are. what does this actually even mean? Whether in the danish , saxon , Norman or Tudor periods , or modern , England is England. The contemporary evidence , and people , and their mannerisms and dress and origination may not be to your liking , but too bad. No country remains static , or fixed in time , and is always taken new elements in and changing. eh? Do you mean like Rishi Sunak , or brown people? Sounds a bit like your earlier racial purity nonsense sandy. you deserve it. Between your dishonest debating , misrepresentations , cherry picking and part quotes of my arguments , in between your racial purity nonsense and how it takes the descendants of immigrants 4 fucking centuries to become naturalised , I think its the least you deserve. .
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Post by sandypine on Feb 19, 2024 22:02:52 GMT
I make the inference that calling Ireland England's first colony is indeed placing blame upon the now English to a greater degree than is warranted. We dont care what you make as an inference. Im simply telling you what was written in the treaty of Windsor , and why from that point ireland was regarded as an English colony. in 1175 , England was a sovereign kingdom. sigh* You can say what you like , but it doesn't make it true. England was never annexed to Normandy the way ireland was annexed to England in 1175 .We have went over the reason time and again. There was no colonial power in 1175. The English crown ruled England. Not the Norman or Anjou crown. Can you prove otherwise? Doesn't matter. There were different ethnic groups within the historic English boundaries who weren't anglo saxon , such as the Danes and some Celts , who are regarded as much natives of England as anglo saxons, so im not sure why the normans took four centuries to be seen as native English in your warped view. what does this even mean? are you arguing the king of England was subservient to the normans ? if not , then what has this to do with the treaty of Windsor? We have been over the fact one man can hold many different titles , but in the treaty , it clearly says ireland is being annexed and claimed by the king of England . not anywhere else. England was never annexed to normandy the way ireland was to England , as we have explained numerous times. so in that regard the question is meaningless and yet more diversionary waffle. In terms of the normans being colonists , I would argue two or three generations later , their descendants , like the English descendants in ireland , would have come to see themselves as part of the English nation. Certainly not your ridiculous 400 year nonsense. It was who has argued otherwise? This is exactly what I mean about filling threads with diversionary , and unnecessary words to make it seem as though you are making a coherent argument , but not actually furthering the debate with any substance. Nope. Ive never once said the Norman crown annexed England. Ive explained why. There were Norman colonists , but their descendants after a couple of generations would have come to see themselves as part of the English nation. England was never annexed to normandy the way ireland was to England . that is the comparison. so what are you gibbering about? round and round we go. I know what your point is , and im saying I disagree with you. England wasn't annexed to the Norman dukedom the way ireland was to the English crown. Hence why from 1175 onwards , ireland was regarded as Englands first colony. more dishonest misrepresentation. Ireland wasn't just a colony through invasion. you made that up. I said ireland was England first colony because it was invaded , then annexed , to the English crown. Stop misrepresenting my argument , and cherry picking bits and chopping other parts off. It's why you are regarded as such a dishonest bullshitter of the highest order. we have went over this point numerous times , previously through the thread.. There is no hypocrisy , as there is no comparison to my argument and yours. Did you show me where the Duke of normandy annexed England to the Norman dukedom ? No . did I show you where the king of England annexed ireland to the English crown ? Yes .The treaty of Windsor. did I agree Norman settlers colonised England in 1066 ? Yes? Did you agree their descendants with in a number of generations became part of the English nation ? No ? You ridiculously argued they weren't for four hundred years. ...and I disagreed. I even asked you ( which you ignored) if Edward the first was a legitimate king of England in your eyes , or Robert de brus king of scotland ,or were they foreign colonial kings and you ignored and ran away. Typical of the dishonest debater that you are. what does this actually even mean? Whether in the danish , saxon , Norman or Tudor periods , or modern , England is England. The contemporary evidence , and people , and their mannerisms and dress and origination may not be to your liking , but too bad. No country remains static , or fixed in time , and is always taken new elements in and changing. eh? Do you mean like Rishi Sunak , or brown people? Sounds a bit like your earlier racial purity nonsense sandy. you deserve it. Between your dishonest debating , misrepresentations , cherry picking and part quotes of my arguments , in between your racial purity nonsense and how it takes the descendants of immigrants 4 fucking centuries to become naturalised , I think its the least you deserve. . You have used the phrase English colony when it was a Norman colony, the English were nowhere to be seen and this is what the problem is. You keep referring to the Crown of England as the deciding factor in sovereignty yet Henry II could not act without a Papal Fief that allowed him to invade Ireland so he was not leader of a sovereign kingdom if he needed permission from another sovereign agency to act. Can I prove England was a colony of Normandy? It seems pretty obvious when Normans rule all and the majority Anglo-Saxon population are considered in history to be oppressed by the colonial power. Brittanica says "The Conquest resulted in the subordination of England to a Norman aristocracy. William probably distributed estates to his followers on a piecemeal basis as lands came into his hands. He granted lands directly to fewer than 180 men, making them his tenants in chief." I repeat the British in India were always regarded as the British in India even after three hundred years and possibly ten generations being born in India. Assimilation into a land is a complicated issue that depends on much including accepting and acceptance. Most especially in the 12th century. "Their descendants would have seen themselves after a couple of generations to be English" that just seems to be opinion. Have you any historical evidence for that. I have much evidence that the Normans in England still regarded themselves as Norman. The Kings in the first hundred years were titled Norman Kings of England, then Plantagenet Kings of England arising from Anjou. You keep implying foreign rule in England makes England England but foreign rule in Ireland makes it a colony of that foreign rule. I replied to much of what you asked but I do need to know what in your eyes makes a Ruler, a King, a Lord legitimate? Is it calling himself something like King of England in much the same way Henry VIII called himself King of Ireland, and once he released himself from Rome then he would be truly sovereign. Once again it is the Crown that rules the roost for you but the reality of how that Crown was usurped by invaders and their descendants means little to you. A lack of annexation does not mean that the power source is not somewhere else. We know Rome played a major part and distilling the essence of colonialism to the Crown alone fits your agenda. As regards the rest you seem to be inventing many things I have not said and when I explain what was meant you ignore the explanation and just repeat the accusation. You almost sound like a warmist. That impression is reinforced by your inability to refrain from personal attacks over things I have not said or implied.
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Post by thomas on Feb 20, 2024 7:11:44 GMT
We dont care what you make as an inference. Im simply telling you what was written in the treaty of Windsor , and why from that point ireland was regarded as an English colony. . You have used the phrase English colony when it was a Norman colony, the English were nowhere to be seen and this is what the problem is. You keep referring to the Crown of England as the deciding factor in sovereignty yet Henry II could not act without a Papal Fief that allowed him to invade Ireland so he was not leader of a sovereign kingdom if he needed permission from another sovereign agency to act. The normans are the English elite. What part of this do you not understand? If you and your wife moved to Australia , and had children there , your children would recognise their family ancestry while seeing themselves as Australians. Your descendants wouldn't be somehow illegitimate , or not representative of Australia as some sort of colonists for the next 400 years. You do talk some unmitigated tosh , as we have seen across many threads , not just this. Henry 2 was as representative of England , the nation , as Edward the first was of England , or as Robert the brus was of scotland. Their ancestry , or caste , didnt make them illegitimate. Every monarchy in Europe started in the same way....hard men taking land and setting themselves up as rulers. The normans became the English elite in a short space of time, same as 200 years earlier the Danes did the same in terms of conquering land , and their descendants became the English , and so on. Henry 2 was every bit an English king as any who followed. He imposed the treaty of Windsor on the Irish delegation , and that treaty , which claimed ireland for the English crown , set the benchmark in Irish history for the next 849 years as an English colony.
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Post by thomas on Feb 20, 2024 7:16:56 GMT
We dont care what you make as an inference. Im simply telling you what was written in the treaty of Windsor , and why from that point ireland was regarded as an English colony. As regards the rest you seem to be inventing many things I have not said and when I explain what was meant you ignore the explanation and just repeat the accusation. You almost sound like a warmist. That impression is reinforced by your inability to refrain from personal attacks over things I have not said or implied. you have largely waffled yet again in the rest of your post . The key plank in the argument was Henry 2 king of England ....yes or no? Did the treaty of Windsor annex Ireland to England , or not? yes or no? Answer the questions , and stop prevaricating.
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Post by thomas on Feb 20, 2024 7:25:28 GMT
We dont care what you make as an inference. Im simply telling you what was written in the treaty of Windsor , and why from that point ireland was regarded as an English colony. I replied to much of what you asked but I do need to know what in your eyes makes a Ruler, a King, a Lord legitimate? you have barely replied to anything I have said , you ignored many of my questions and points , and generally evaded the thrust of my arguments . This is what you do in many threads. You disagree , but spend the thread prevaricating without offering any sort of substance as to why . I dont need to prove to you Henry the second was king of England. That is an undeniable historical fact. You are the one challenging that fact , and his right , as king of England , to impose treaties annexing ireland to the English crown. Its down to you to disprove the treaty of Windsor, or show Henry the second was not king of England. If you can't , then by default your. whole argument falls flat on its face. No amount of bullshit , or filling threads with unmitigated waffle will change that.
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